FSO (Food Saftey Officer) Exam MCQ
FSO Exam Pattern – Deep Detail
1. लिखित परीक्षा (Written Exam)
कुल प्रश्न: 100–150 (State पर depend)
प्रश्न प्रकार: Objective MCQ
भाषा: हिंदी + इंग्लिश
समय: 2–3 घंटे
2. Syllabus का Deep Structure
**UNIT – 1: Food Safety & Standards Act, 2006
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Definitions (Contaminant, Misbranded, Misleading, Unsafe food)
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General principles of Food safety
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FSS Act, Rules & Regulations
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Licensing & Registration
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Packaging & Labelling Regulations
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Claims, Advertisements
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Penalties & Offences
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Functions of Commissioner, DO, FSO, AO
UNIT – 2: Food Microbiology & Hygiene
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Microorganisms in food
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Food spoilage organisms
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Foodborne illnesses (Bacterial, Viral, Parasitic)
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Toxins (Botulinum, Aflatoxin, Mycotoxin)
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Hygienic handling of food
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Cleaning & Sanitation (CIP, COP)
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Water quality standards
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Food safety hazards (Biological, Chemical, Physical)
UNIT – 3: Food Chemistry & Adulteration
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Adulterants
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Food composition
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Preservation principles
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Food additives
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Functional foods
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Nutrients: carbs, protein, fats, vitamins
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Shelf life
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Food contaminants (Heavy metals, Pesticides)
UNIT – 4: Food Processing Technology
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Milk processing, Meat, Fish, Egg
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Cereals, Pulses, Oilseeds
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Fruits & Vegetables processing
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Thermal processing (Blanching, Pasteurization, Sterilization)
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Non-thermal processing (HPP, Irradiation)
UNIT – 5: Standards & International Agencies
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Codex Alimentarius
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ISO, HACCP, GMP, GHP, FOSTAC
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Global food regulatory scenario
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WTO, SPS, TBT Agreements
UNIT – 6: Duties & Responsibilities
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FSO duties
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Sampling procedure (Form A, Form B, sealing, dispatch)
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Inspection checklist
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Adjudication
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Recall procedure
UNIT – 7: General Aptitude
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Reasoning
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Mathematics
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GK & Current Affairs
-
Computer Knowledge
3. Exam Weightage (Deep Insight)
Unit Weightage Difficulty FSS Act & Rules 25–30% High Food Chemistry 15–20% Moderate Microbiology 15% High Food Processing 10–15% Easy–Moderate Standards (Codex, ISO) 10% Moderate Adulteration 5–10% Easy Sampling/FSO duties 10% High General Aptitude State dependent Easy
4. FSO Interview Pattern (If Applicable)
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Bio-data based questions
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Food safety law-based questions
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Practical scenario (Inspection, sampling)
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8–12 minutes panel discussion
5. सबसे ज्यादा पूछे जाने वाले टॉपिक (Deep Analysis)
✔ Food safety definitions
✔ Misbranding, Labelling
✔ Food sampling procedure
✔ Powers & duties of FSO
✔ Penalties & Offences
✔ HACCP, GMP, GHP
✔ Food adulterants
✔ Microbial toxins
✔ Codex & Food standards
✔ FSSA structure: Commissioner → DO → FSO → AO
FSO MCQs – UNIT 1 (FSS Act, Rules, Regulations)
Total: 20 MCQ (Deep level)
1. FSS Act, 2006 किस प्रकार का कानून है?
A) Sector-specific
B) Umbrella food law
C) Export-specific
D) Regional law
Answer: B
2. FSSAI की स्थापना किस धारा के अंतर्गत की गई है?
A) Section 3
B) Section 4
C) Section 6
D) Section 18
Answer: B
3. Food Safety Commissioner किस स्तर का अधिकारी होता है?
A) District level
B) State level
C) Central level
D) Block level
Answer: B
4. FSSAI का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
A) किसान उत्पादन बढ़ाना
B) उपभोक्ताओं के लिए सुरक्षित भोजन सुनिश्चित करना
C) खाद्य निर्यात सुधारना
D) पशुपालन बढ़ाना
Answer: B
5. Licensing & Registration Regulation किस वर्ष लागू हुआ?
A) 2006
B) 2008
C) 2011
D) 2015
Answer: C
6. FBO का पूरा नाम क्या है?
A) Food Business Officer
B) Food Biotech Organization
C) Food Business Operator
D) Food Basic Officer
Answer: C
7. Misbranded food किस धारा में परिभाषित है?
A) Section 3(1)(zz)
B) Section 3(1)(zf)
C) Section 3(1)(zd)
D) Section 59
Answer: A
8. Unsafe food की अधिकतम सज़ा क्या है?
A) 1 लाख
B) 5 लाख
C) आजीवन कारावास + जुर्माना
D) कोई सज़ा नहीं
Answer: C
9. Food Recall किस Regulation के अंतर्गत आता है?
A) 2010
B) 2017
C) 2019
D) 2021
Answer: B
10. Food Analyst को नियुक्त करने का अधिकार किसके पास है?
A) CEO, FSSAI
B) Central Government
C) State Commissioner
D) District Magistrate
Answer: B
11. Adjudication किस अधिकारी द्वारा की जाती है?
A) SDM / ADM
B) CEO
C) Food Analyst
D) FSO
Answer: A
12. Central Licensing Authority कौन है?
A) DO
B) FSO
C) Designated Officer
D) Central Licensing Officer
Answer: D
13. Import food clearance कौन करता है?
A) FSO
B) Customs + FSSAI officers
C) Collector
D) Adjudicating Officer
Answer: B
14. Advertisement में false claim किस अध्याय के अंतर्गत दंडनीय है?
A) Chapter 4
B) Chapter 9
C) Chapter 1
D) Chapter 11
Answer: A
15. "Sub-standard food" की परिभाषा कहाँ दी गई है?
A) Section 2
B) Section 3
C) Section 30
D) Schedule 4
Answer: B
16. Sampling का Form A किसके लिए है?
A) Analyst की रिपोर्ट
B) Notice to Food Business Operator
C) Request for adjudication
D) Sample destruction
Answer: B
17. Maximum penalty for misbranding?
A) 2 lakh
B) 5 lakh
C) 3 lakh
D) 1 lakh
Answer: C
18. “Food Safety Officer” किस Schedule में वर्गीकृत होता है?
A) Schedule 1
B) Schedule 2
C) Schedule 4
D) कहीं नहीं
Answer: D (FSS Act में schedule नहीं)
19. Primary responsibility for safe food किसकी है?
A) Government
B) Consumer
C) FBO
D) FSO
Answer: C
20. FSSAI logo का उपयोग __________ में अनिवार्य है।
A) Raw food
B) Alcohol
C) Packaged food
D) Unprocessed food
Answer: C
FSO MCQ – UNIT 2 (Microbiology & Hygiene)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. Psychrophilic microorganisms optimum temperature:
A) 0–10°C
B) 20–30°C
C) 40–50°C
D) 60–70°C
Answer: A
2. Botulinum toxin is produced under:
A) Aerobic conditions
B) Anaerobic conditions
C) Acidic medium only
D) Sunlight
Answer: B
3. Aflatoxin is produced by:
A) Rhizopus
B) Penicillium
C) Aspergillus flavus
D) Saccharomyces
Answer: C
4. Most food poisoning cases are caused by:
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Parasites
D) Yeast
Answer: B
5. “Flagellated bacteria” are responsible for:
A) Odor
B) Color
C) Motility
D) Toxin release
Answer: C
6. Milk curdling by Lactobacillus is an example of:
A) Food infection
B) Fermentation
C) Putrefaction
D) Toxicity
Answer: B
7. Bacterial spores are destroyed at:
A) 60°C
B) 75°C
C) 100°C
D) 121°C for 15 min
Answer: D
8. The most heat-resistant pathogen is:
A) E. coli
B) Listeria
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium botulinum
Answer: D
9. HACCP का पहला Principle क्या है?
A) Monitoring procedures
B) Hazard analysis
C) Verification
D) Record keeping
Answer: B
10. “Cross-contamination” का संबंध है:
A) Food colour
B) Water hardness
C) Clean food touching contaminated food
D) Vitamin loss
Answer: C
11. Handwashing time recommended (WHO):
A) 5 sec
B) 10 sec
C) 20 sec
D) 60 sec
Answer: C
12. Cold storage slows down:
A) Spore formation
B) Enzyme action
C) Microbial growth
D) Moisture absorption
Answer: C
13. “Danger Zone” temperature for food:
A) 0–5°C
B) 20–40°C
C) 5–60°C
D) 80–100°C
Answer: C
14. Which organism grows in refrigerated foods?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Salmonella
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Bacillus subtilis
Answer: A
15. Which organism causes “rice reheating poisoning”?
A) Staph aureus
B) Bacillus cereus
C) E. coli
D) Campylobacter
Answer: B
16. Visual sign of yeast spoilage:
A) Gas bubbles
B) Rotten smell
C) Bitter taste
D) Metallic odor
Answer: A
17. GHP stands for:
A) Good Hygiene Practices
B) General Health Program
C) Good Handling Procedures
D) General Harvesting Plan
Answer: A
18. Sanitizers are effective except when:
A) Warm water present
B) Organic matter present
C) Detergent used
D) pH neutral
Answer: B
19. WHO का “Five Keys to Safer Food” में से कौन नहीं है?
A) Keep clean
B) Separate raw and cooked
C) Use plenty of spices
D) Cook thoroughly
Answer: C
20. Water quality testing indicator organism:
A) Salmonella
B) Vibrio
C) E. coli (Coliforms)
D) Shigella
Answer: C
FSO MCQ – UNIT 3 (Food Chemistry & Adulteration)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. Maillard reaction occurs between:
A) Fat + Protein
B) Protein + Carbohydrate (Reducing sugar)
C) Fat + Sugar
D) Vitamin + Mineral
Answer: B
2. Rancidity in oils is caused by:
A) Hydrolysis
B) Oxidation
C) Both A & B
D) Carbonation
Answer: C
3. Saponification value is highest in:
A) Coconut oil
B) Groundnut oil
C) Sesame oil
D) Mustard oil
Answer: A
4. Presence of metanil yellow is checked in:
A) Tea
B) Turmeric
C) Honey
D) Milk
Answer: B
5. Starch adulteration in milk is tested by:
A) NH₄OH
B) Benedict’s reagent
C) Iodine
D) HCl
Answer: C
6. Oxidation of Vitamin C is accelerated by:
A) Copper
B) Sugar
C) Salt
D) Starch
Answer: A
7. Which carbohydrate is non-reducing?
A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Lactose
D) Sucrose
Answer: D
8. Adulteration of brick powder is commonly found in:
A) Tea
B) Chili powder
C) Coffee
D) Jaggery
Answer: B
9. Argemone oil adulteration in mustard oil causes:
A) Lathyrism
B) Epidemic dropsy
C) Botulism
D) Kwashiorkor
Answer: B
10. Synthetic milk contains:
A) Urea + Detergent + Water + Refined oil
B) Sugar + Water
C) Butter + Color
D) Salt + Water
Answer: A
11. Kjeldahl method estimates:
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate
D) Fiber
Answer: B
12. Browning of cut apples is due to:
A) Oxidation by peroxidase
B) Polyphenol oxidase
C) Maillard reaction
D) Thermal degradation
Answer: B
13. Excess fluoride in water causes:
A) Dental caries
B) Dental fluorosis
C) Anemia
D) Rickets
Answer: B
14. “Invert sugar” is a mixture of:
A) Glucose + Starch
B) Glucose + Fructose
C) Fructose + Sucrose
D) Galactose + Fructose
Answer: B
15. Test for urea in milk:
A) Molisch test
B) Phloroglucinol test
C) DMAB test
D) Benedict’s test
Answer: C
16. Aflatoxin commonly contaminates:
A) Genetically modified crops
B) Stored nuts & oilseeds
C) Fresh milk
D) Rice water
Answer: B
17. Common adulterant in ghee:
A) Sugar syrup
B) Vanaspati
C) Salt
D) Chalk
Answer: B
18. PUFA are highly prone to:
A) Polymerization
B) Oxidative rancidity
C) Hydrolysis
D) Condensation
Answer: B
19. Which vitamin is heat-labile?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin E
Answer: C
20. Test for honey adulteration with sugar syrup:
A) Iodine test
B) Fiehe’s test
C) Millon’s reagent
D) Ninhydrin test
Answer: B
FSO MCQ – UNIT 4 (Food Processing & Preservation)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. Pasteurization of milk typically done at:
A) 63°C for 30 min (LTLT)
B) 72°C for 15 sec (HTST)
C) Both
D) None
Answer: C
2. Blanching is mainly used to:
A) Remove moisture
B) Inactivate enzymes
C) Sterilize food
D) Increase sweetness
Answer: B
3. Canning sterilization temperature:
A) 60°C
B) 75°C
C) 100°C
D) 121°C
Answer: D
4. IQF (Individual Quick Freezing) uses:
A) Slow freezing
B) Fast freezing
C) No freezing
D) Dry heat
Answer: B
5. UHT processing temperature:
A) 75°C
B) 85°C
C) 100°C
D) 135–150°C
Answer: D
6. Main reason for milk boiling:
A) Browning
B) Killing vegetative bacteria
C) Inactivation of fats
D) Increase vitamins
Answer: B
7. MAP (Modified Atmosphere Packaging) commonly uses:
A) Oxygen + Nitrogen
B) Nitrogen + CO₂
C) Helium
D) Carbon monoxide only
Answer: B
8. Hydrogen swelling is a spoilage seen in:
A) Fruits
B) Meat
C) Canned foods
D) Frozen foods
Answer: C
9. Dehydration reduces:
A) Acidity
B) Water activity
C) Nutrients
D) Aroma only
Answer: B
10. Commercial sterility ensures destruction of:
A) All microbes
B) All pathogens only
C) Spores of Clostridium botulinum
D) All fungi
Answer: C
11. Cold point in a can refers to:
A) Area of highest temperature
B) Area of lowest temperature during heating
C) Center of bottom
D) Center of lid
Answer: B
12. Irradiation symbol is called:
A) Green Dot
B) Radura
C) Lotus
D) Helix
Answer: B
13. Hurdle technology involves:
A) Single preservation method
B) Combination of methods
C) No preservation
D) Only refrigeration
Answer: B
14. Water activity (aw) for microbial growth is minimum at:
A) 0.90
B) 0.86
C) 0.80
D) 0.60
Answer: D
15. Milk homogenization breaks:
A) Protein
B) Fat globules
C) Carbohydrates
D) Enzymes
Answer: B
16. “Case hardening” occurs during:
A) Fermentation
B) Dehydration
C) Blanching
D) Canning
Answer: B
17. Pickling preservation works by:
A) Lowering pH
B) Reducing sugar
C) Increasing starch
D) Adding fat
Answer: A
18. High Pressure Processing (HPP) uses pressure up to:
A) 100 MPa
B) 300 MPa
C) 600 MPa
D) 1200 MPa
Answer: C
19. Smoking of meat preserves by:
A) Heat only
B) Chemicals in smoke + drying
C) Freezing
D) Fermentation
Answer: B
20. Fruit juice clarification is done by:
A) Pectinase enzyme
B) Amylase
C) Trypsin
D) Lipase
Answer: A
FSO MCQ – UNIT 5 (Food Standards, Codex, HACCP, ISO)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. Codex Alimentarius Commission is jointly established by:
A) WHO + UNICEF
B) WHO + FAO
C) FAO + WTO
D) WTO + ISO
Answer: B
2. Codex standards are:
A) Mandatory
B) Optional but internationally accepted
C) Illegal
D) Country-specific
Answer: B
3. ISO 22000 is related to:
A) Food packaging
B) Food safety management system
C) Quality of water
D) Environmental standards
Answer: B
4. HACCP Principle-1:
A) Identify CCPs
B) Establish monitoring
C) Conduct hazard analysis
D) Establish corrective action
Answer: C
5. CCP stands for:
A) Control Chemical Point
B) Critical Control Point
C) Critical Check Point
D) Central Cooking Point
Answer: B
6. GMP focuses on:
A) Machine quality
B) Manufacturing practices ensuring safety
C) Marketing practices
D) Export rules
Answer: B
7. GHP ensures:
A) Hygiene in food environment
B) Storage only
C) Labelling only
D) Packaging only
Answer: A
8. Food Additives standards are listed in:
A) FSS (Alcohol) Regulations
B) FSS (Food Product Standards & Additives)
C) FSS (Labelling)
D) FSS (Packaging)
Answer: B
9. Codex “General Principles of Food Hygiene” focuses on:
A) Transport only
B) Entire food chain
C) Retailers only
D) Government only
Answer: B
10. ISO 9001 deals with:
A) Quality management system
B) Food handling only
C) Agriculture
D) Lab analysis
Answer: A
11. FSSAI standards are primarily based on:
A) USFDA
B) Codex
C) WTO
D) IMF
Answer: B
12. Food additive INS number identifies:
A) Brand
B) International Numbering System
C) Quality
D) Manufacturer
Answer: B
13. In HACCP, verification means:
A) Monitoring CCP
B) Checking if HACCP plan works
C) Labelling food
D) Packaging food
Answer: B
14. “Critical limit” refers to:
A) Max/min value to control hazard
B) Inspection schedule
C) Consumer complaint
D) Storage space
Answer: A
15. Who approves HACCP plan in industries?
A) CEO
B) FSO
C) HACCP team leader
D) Security guard
Answer: C
16. Codex is headquartered in:
A) Geneva
B) Rome
C) New York
D) London
Answer: B
17. FSSAI Packaging Regulations classify materials into:
A) Two types
B) Three types
C) Four types
D) Unlimited
Answer: A (Primary + Secondary)
18. Shelf-life determination mainly depends on:
A) Label design
B) Packaging material
C) Marketing
D) Price
Answer: B
19. ISO 17025 is for:
A) Laboratory competence and calibration
B) Food advertising
C) Hygiene practices
D) Retail food business
Answer: A
20. HACCP originated from:
A) NASA space food program
B) WHO
C) Indian standards
D) Harvard University
Answer: A
FSO MCQ – UNIT 6 (FSO Duties, Enforcement, Sampling, Penalties)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. FSO को नियुक्त करने का अधिकार किसके पास है?
A) CEO, FSSAI
B) State Commissioner of Food Safety
C) SDM
D) Collector
Answer: B
2. Sampling के समय कितने भागों में सैंपल विभाजित किया जाता है?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: C
3. Food sampling में उपयोग किया जाने वाला फॉर्म:
A) Form A
B) Form B
C) Form C
D) Form 1
Answer: A (Notice to FBO)
4. Analyst report जारी करता है:
A) FSO
B) DO
C) Food Analyst
D) Commissioner
Answer: C
5. FSS Act के अंतर्गत prosecution शुरू करता है:
A) FSO
B) DO (Designated Officer)
C) Collector
D) FDA Inspector
Answer: B
6. Food Business unit को बंद करने का अधिकार किसके पास है?
A) FSO
B) Commissioner
C) Food Analyst
D) Police
Answer: B
7. Adjudicating Officer होता है:
A) DM / ADM रैंक
B) Police officer
C) FSO
D) Lab official
Answer: A
8. Sampling करते समय FSO सबसे पहले क्या देता है?
A) Fine notice
B) Form A (Notice to take sample)
C) Analyst report
D) Summon
Answer: B
9. Sealing of sample करने से पहले क्या आवश्यक है?
A) Lab approval
B) FBO signature
C) Consumer complaint
D) Police witness
Answer: B
10. Unsafe food का penalty & punishment सेक्शन:
A) Section 50
B) Section 52
C) Section 59
D) Section 65
Answer: C
11. Misbranded food पर अधिकतम दंड:
A) 50,000
B) 1 lakh
C) 3 lakh
D) 10 lakh
Answer: C
12. Food recall का आदेश कौन जारी करता है?
A) FSO
B) DO
C) Commissioner
D) Lab analyst
Answer: C
13. FSO inspect करता है:
A) Food processing units
B) Retail shops
C) Restaurants
D) All of these
Answer: D
14. DO द्वारा Appeal कहाँ की जा सकती है?
A) Collector
B) Food Safety Tribunal
C) High Court
D) Sessions Court
Answer: B
15. FSO की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण तकनीकी जिम्मेदारी:
A) Sampling
B) Complaint handling
C) Awareness
D) Training
Answer: A
16. “Improvement Notice” जारी करने का अधिकार:
A) FSO
B) DO
C) Commissioner
D) Consumer Court
Answer: B
17. Section 32 deals with:
A) Penalty for adulterants
B) Improvement notice
C) Appeal procedure
D) Food analyst duties
Answer: B
18. Standard sub-standard food penalty:
A) Section 50
B) Section 51
C) Section 52
D) Section 53
Answer: B
19. "Recall plan" primarily used in:
A) Retail food only
B) Packaged food industry
C) Transport sector
D) Lab testing
Answer: B
20. FSO को inspection दौरान क्या maintain करना आवश्यक है?
A) Video evidence
B) Inspection report + Checklist
C) FIR
D) Medical record
Answer: B
1. If an experiment succeeds with probability 2/3, probability of at least one success in 3 trials:
A) 8/27
B) 1 – (1/3)³
C) 19/27
D) 20/27
Answer: B → = 1 – 1/27 = 26/27
2. 25% of 480 + 12.5% of 320 = ?
A) 160
B) 200
C) 120
D) 180
Answer: A
3. Simplify: 1/0.25 + 1/0.5
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Answer: B (4 + 2 = 6)
4. Direction: If North becomes West, West becomes South, South becomes East → East becomes?
A) North
B) West
C) South
D) East
Answer: C
**5. डिकोडिंग: यदि ‘358’ = “Please come soon”, ‘275’ = “Go home soon”, ‘867’ = “Please go there”.
शब्द ‘Come’ के लिए संख्या?**
A) 3
B) 5
C) 8
D) 7
Answer: B (358 → come = 5)
6. Average of first 50 natural numbers:
A) 25
B) 25.5
C) 26
D) 24.5
Answer: B
7. Which country chaired G20 in 2023?
A) Brazil
B) Japan
C) India
D) China
Answer: C
8. Largest river in India (Length within India):
A) Ganga
B) Brahmaputra
C) Yamuna
D) Godavari
Answer: A
9. Right-click of mouse generally opens:
A) Control panel
B) Context menu
C) Desktop
D) Search panel
Answer: B
10. Shortcut for “Refresh” in Windows:
A) F2
B) F4
C) F5
D) F7
Answer: C
11. Which memory is volatile?
A) ROM
B) HDD
C) RAM
D) DVD
Answer: C
12. Full form of PDF:
A) Program Document File
B) Portable Document Format
C) Print Data File
D) Process Download Format
Answer: B
13. GDP stands for:
A) Gross Domestic Product
B) General Domestic Price
C) Government Development Policy
D) Gross Development Percentage
Answer: A
14. Author of “Wings of Fire”:
A) C. Rajagopalachari
B) APJ Abdul Kalam
C) Vikram Sarabhai
D) Homi Bhabha
Answer: B
15. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 5 → A : C ?
A) 3 : 5
B) 6 : 5
C) 3 : 2
D) 24 : 20
Answer: B (A:B = 3:4 → B=8 ⇒ A=6 → A:C=6:5)
16. Which state is the largest producer of milk in India?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Haryana
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
17. Hardest natural substance:
A) Quartz
B) Diamond
C) Graphite
D) Corundum
Answer: B
18. कौन-सा कंप्यूटर वायरस नहीं है?
A) Trojan
B) Worm
C) Firewall
D) Ransomware
Answer: C
19. 1 GB = ?
A) 1000 MB
B) 512 MB
C) 1024 MB
D) 2048 MB
Answer: C
20. Governor of state is appointed by:
A) State government
B) Prime Minister
C) President of India
D) Supreme Court
Answer: C
FSO MCQ – UNIT 8 (Foodborne Diseases, Toxins, Contaminants, Risk Assessment)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. Food infection is caused by:
A) Consuming pre-formed toxins
B) Live microorganisms entering body
C) Heavy metals
D) Pesticide residues
Answer: B
2. Food intoxication is caused by:
A) Live bacteria
B) Heat-stable toxins
C) Parasites
D) Viruses
Answer: B
3. “Rice reheating poisoning” is caused due to:
A) Salmonella
B) Bacillus cereus
C) Vibrio
D) Norovirus
Answer: B
4. Vibrio cholerae spreads through:
A) Air
B) Water & food contamination
C) Insects
D) Skin contact
Answer: B
5. Heavy metal causing minamata disease:
A) Lead
B) Arsenic
C) Mercury
D) Cadmium
Answer: C
6. Carcinogenic toxin “Aflatoxin B1” produced by:
A) Rhizopus
B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Candida
D) Salmonella
Answer: B
7. Nitrate in leafy vegetables converts in stomach into:
A) Ammonia
B) Nitrite
C) Nitrosamines
D) Peroxide
Answer: C
8. Major parasite in undercooked pork:
A) Taenia solium
B) Giardia
C) Entamoeba
D) Plasmodium
Answer: A
9. Glanders disease occurs mainly in:
A) Poultry
B) Horses
C) Cows
D) Fish
Answer: B
10. Pesticide residues are monitored under:
A) GMP
B) RMP
C) MRL (Maximum Residue Limit)
D) CCP
Answer: C
11. Histamine poisoning (scombroid poisoning) occurs in:
A) Milk
B) Meat
C) Fish (especially tuna)
D) Vegetables
Answer: C
12. Melamine adulteration mainly affects:
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Stomach
D) Skin
Answer: B (kidney stones)
13. WHO classifies “food safety risk assessment” into how many components?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: C (Hazard ID, Hazard Characterization, Exposure Assessment, Risk Characterization)
14. Cholera toxin causes:
A) Fever
B) Severe dehydration
C) Food allergy
D) Neurological disorder
Answer: B
15. Arsenic contamination is commonly associated with:
A) Groundwater
B) Fish
C) Fruit juices
D) Milk
Answer: A (especially Bengal region)
16. “Mad cow disease” is caused by:
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Prion
D) Protozoa
Answer: C
17. Staphylococcus aureus toxin is:
A) Heat-labile
B) Heat-stable
C) Cold-sensitive
D) Antibiotic-sensitive
Answer: B
18. Which disease is viral?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Botulism
C) Listeriosis
D) Amoebiasis
Answer: A
19. Natural toxicant “Solanine” is found in:
A) Carrot
B) Potato (green parts)
C) Tomato
D) Capsicum
Answer: B
20. Excess fluoride leads to:
A) Scurvy
B) Goitre
C) Dental & skeletal fluorosis
D) Night blindness
Answer: C
FSO MCQ – UNIT 9 (Mixed Revision Test)
Total: 20 MCQ
1. FSS Act 2006 किस प्रकार का कानून है?
A) Sector specific
B) Umbrella law
C) Regional law
D) Export law
Answer: B
2. “Radura” symbol किस लिए है?
A) Organic food
B) Irradiated food
C) GM food
D) Vegan food
Answer: B
3. Milk में added water की जांच:
A) Iodine test
B) Freezing point test
C) Fiehe’s test
D) Benedict’s test
Answer: B
4. Vegetative cells are destroyed at:
A) 60°C
B) 75°C
C) 100°C
D) 120°C
Answer: C
5. सबसे heat resistant pathogen:
A) Salmonella
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Listeria
D) Staph aureus
Answer: B
6. Sampling में form B किसके लिए है?
A) Analyst report
B) FBO notice
C) Recall order
D) Appeal request
Answer: A
7. “Sub-standard food” penalty:
A) Section 50
B) Section 51
C) Section 52
D) Section 59
Answer: B
8. Water activity minimum for microbial growth:
A) 0.90
B) 0.85
C) 0.70
D) 0.60
Answer: D
9. Potato में solanine बढ़ता है जब:
A) उबालने पर
B) धूप/प्रकाश में हरा होने पर
C) फ्रिज में रखने पर
D) गर्म करने पर
Answer: B
10. E. coli का मुख्य संकेत:
A) Viral pollution
B) Fecal contamination
C) Chemical hazard
D) Heavy metal
Answer: B
11. HACCP principle 7:
A) Verification
B) Record keeping
C) CCP identification
D) Hazard analysis
Answer: B
12. कौन-सा preservative Class 1 में आता है?
A) Sodium benzoate
B) Sorbic acid
C) Salt & sugar
D) Nitrates
Answer: C
13. Fish poisoning (histamine) किससे होता है?
A) Mercury
B) Toxin in tuna
C) Vitamin loss
D) Lead
Answer: B
14. Vanaspati adulteration test in ghee:
A) Iodine
B) Halphen test
C) FeCl₃
D) Nessler’s reagent
Answer: B
15. FSO की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण जिम्मेदारी:
A) Training
B) Sampling
C) Awareness
D) Packaging
Answer: B
16. Codex HQ कहाँ है?
A) Geneva
B) Rome
C) London
D) Paris
Answer: B
17. ISO 22000 focuses on:
A) Food safety management
B) Water testing
C) Lab quality
D) Organic certification
Answer: A
18. Listeria grows well at:
A) Room temp
B) Freezing temp (psychrotrophic)
C) Boiling temp
D) Dry heat
Answer: B
19. Nitrosamines किससे बनते हैं?
A) Vitamin C breakdown
B) Nitrate + amines
C) Sugar oxidation
D) Protein denaturation
Answer: B
20. Aptitude: 20% of 450 + 10% of 300 = ?
A) 90
B) 120
C) 150
D) 180
Answer: D
